Top 25 Reading Comprehension Practice

To Download Click Here

TOP 25 READING COMPREHENSION PRACTICE

1.
Extended debate concerning the exact point of origin of individual folktales told by Afro-American slaves has unfortunately taken precedence over analysis of the tales’ meaning and function. Cultural continuities with Africa were not dependent on importation and perpetuation of specific folktales in their pristine form. It is in the place that tales occupied in the lives of the slaves and in the meaning slaves derived from them that the clearest resemblances to African tradition can be found. Afro-American slaves did not borrow tales indiscriminately from the Whites among whom they lived. Black people were most influenced by those Euro-American tales whose functional meaning and aesthetic appeal had the greatest similarity to the tales with deep roots in their ancestral homeland. Regardless of where slave tales came from, the essential point is that, with respect to language, delivery, details of characterization, and plot, slaves quickly made them their own.
1. The author claims that most studies of folktales told by Afro-American slaves are inadequate because the studies
(A) fail to recognize any possible Euro-American influence on the folktales
(B) do not pay enough attention to the features of a folktale that best reveal an African influence
(C) overestimate the number of folktales brought from Africa by the slaves
(D) do not consider the fact that a folktale can be changed as it is retold many times（B）
(E) oversimplify the diverse and complex traditions of the slaves ancestral homeland
2. The author’s main purpose is to
(A) create a new field of study
(B) discredit an existing field of study
(C) change the focus of a field of study
(D) transplant scholarly techniques from one field of study to another（C）
(E) restrict the scope of a burgeoning new field of study
3. The passage suggests that the author would regard which of the following areas of inquiry as most likely to reveal the slaves’ cultural continuities with Africa?
(A) The means by which Blacks disseminated their folktales in nineteenth-century America
(B) Specific regional differences in the styles of delivery used by the slaves in telling folktales
(C) The functional meaning of Black folktales in the lives of White children raised by slave
(D) The specific way the slaves used folktales to impart moral teaching to their children（D）
(E) The complexities of plot that appear most frequently in the slaves’ tales
4. Which of the following techniques is used by the author in developing the argument in the passage?
(A) Giving a cliché a new meaning
(B) Pointedly refusing to define key terms
(C) Alternately presenting generalities and concrete details
(D) Concluding the passage with a restatement of the first point made in the passage（E）
(E) Juxtaposing statements of what is not the case and statements of what is the case
2.
The energy contained in rock within the earth’s crust represents a nearly unlimited energy source, but until recently commercial retrieval has been limited to underground hot water and/or steam recovery systems. These systems have been developed in areas of recent volcanic activity, where high rates of heat flow cause visible eruption of water in the form of geysers and hot springs. In other areas, however, hot rock also exists near the surface but there is insufficient water present to produce eruptive phenomena. Thus a potential hot dry rock (HDR) reservoir exists whenever the amount of spontaneously produced geothermal fluid has been judged inadequate for existing commercial systems.
As a result of recent energy crisis, new concepts for creating HDR recovery systems—which involve drilling holes and connecting them to artificial reservoirs placed deep within the crust—are being developed. In all attempts to retrieve energy from HDR’s, artificial stimulation will be required to create either sufficient permeability or bounded flow paths to facilitate the removal of heat by circulation of a fluid over the surface of the rock.
The HDR resource base is generally defined to included crustal rock that is hotter than 150℃, is at depths less than ten kilometers, and can be drilled with presently available equipment. Although wells deeper than ten kilometers are technically feasible, prevailing economic factors will obviously determine the commercial feasibility of wells at such depths. Rock temperatures as low as 100℃ may be useful for space heating (heating of spaces especially for human comfort by any means (as fuel, electricity, or solar radiation) with the heater either within the space or external to it); however, for producing electricity, temperatures greater than 40℃ are desirable.
The geothermal gradient, which specifically determines the depth of drilling required to reach a desired temperature, is a major factor in the recoverability of geothermal resources. Temperature
gradient maps generated from oil and gas well temperature-depth records kept by the American Association of Petroleum Geologists suggest that tappable high-temperature gradients are distributed all across the United States. (There are many areas, however, for which no temperature gradient records exist.)
Indications are that the HDR resource base is very large. If an average geothermal temperature gradient of 22℃ per kilometer of depth is used, a staggering 13,000,000 quadrillion B.T.U.’s of total energy are calculated to be contained in crustal rock to a ten-kilometer depth in the United States. If we conservatively estimate that only about 0.2 percent is recoverable, we find a total of all the coal remaining in the United States. The remaining problem is to balance the economics of deeper, hotter, more costly wells and shallower, cooler, less expensive wells against the value of the final product, electricity and/or heat.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) alert readers to the existence of HDR’s as an available energy source
(B) document the challengers that have been surmounted in the effort to recover energy from HDR’s
(C) warn the users of coal and oil that HDR’s are not an economically feasible alternative
(D) encourage the use of new techniques for the recovery of energy from underground hot water and steam（A）
(E) urge consumers to demand quicker development of HDR resources for the production of energy
2. The passage would be most likely to appear in a
(A) petrological research report focused on the history of temperature-depth records in the United States
(B) congressional report urging the conservation of oil and natural gas reserves in the United States
(C) technical journal article concerned with the recoverability of newly identified energy sources
(D) consumer report describing the extent and accessibility of remaining coal resources（C）
(E) pamphlet designed to introduce homeowners to the advantages of HDR space-heating systems
3. According the passage, an average geothermal gradient of 22℃ per kilometer of depth can be used to
(A) balance the economics of HDR energy retrieval against that of underground hot water or steam recovery systems
(B) determine the amount of energy that will used for space heating in the United States
(C) provide comparisons between hot water and HDR energy sources in United States
(D) revise the estimates on the extent of remaining coal resources in the United States（E）
(E) estimate the total HDR resource base in the United States
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the availability of temperature-depth records for any specific area in the United States depends primarily on the
(A) possibility that HDR’s may be found in that area
(B) existence of previous attempts to obtain oil or gas in that area
(C) history of successful hot water or steam recovery efforts in that area
(D) failure of inhabitants to conserve oil gas reserves in that area（B）
(E) use of coal as a substitute for oil or gas in that area
5. According to the passage, in all HDR recovery systems fluid will be necessary in order to allow
(A) sufficient permeability
(B) artificial stimulation
(C) drilling of holes
(D) construction of reservoirs（E）
(E) transfer of heat
6. According to the passage, if the average geothermal gradient in an area is 22℃ per kilometer of depth, which of the following can be reliably predicted?
I. The temperature at the base of a 10-kilometer well will be sufficient for the production of electricity.
II. Drilling of wells deeper than 10 kilometers will be economically feasible.
III. Insufficient water is present to produce eruptive phenomena.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only（A）
(E) I, II, and III
7. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) Energy from Water Sources: The Feasibility of Commercial Systems
(B) Geothermal Energy Retrieval: Volcanic Activity and Hot Dry Rocks
(C) Energy Underground: Geothermal Sources Give Way to Fossil Fuels
(D) Tappable Energy for America’s Future: Hot Dry Rocks（D）
(E) High Geothermal Gradients in the United States: Myth or Reality?
3.
Four legal approaches may be followed in attempting to channel technological development in
socially useful direction: specific directives, market incentive modifications, criminal prohibitions, and changes in decision-making structures. Specific directives involve the government’s identifying one or more factors controlling research, development, or implementation of a given technology. Directives affecting such factors may vary from administrative regulation of private activity to government ownership of a technological operation. Market incentive modifications are deliberate alterations of the market within which private decisions regarding the development and implementation of technology are made. Such modifications may consist of imposing taxes to cover the costs to society of a given technology, granting subsidies to pay for social benefits of a technology, creating the right to sue to prevent certain technological development, or easing procedural rules to enable the recovery of damages to compensate for harm caused by destructive technological activity. Criminal prohibitions may modify technological activity in areas impinging on fundamental social values, or they may modify human behavior likely to result from technological applications—for example, the deactivation of automotive pollution control devices in order to improve vehicle performance. Alteration of decision-making structures includes all possible modifications in the authority, constitution, or responsibility of private and public entities deciding questions of technological development and implementation. Such alterations include the addition of public-interest members to corporate boards, the imposition by statute of duties on governmental decision-makers, and the extension of warranties in response to consumer action.
Effective use of these methods to control technology depends on whether or not the goal of regulation is the optimal allocation of resources. When the object is optimal resource allocation, that combination of legal methods should be used that most nearly yields the allocation that would exist if there were no external costs resulting from allocating resources through market activity. There are external costs when the price set by buyers and sellers of goods fails to include some costs, to anyone, that result from the production and use of the goods. Such costs are internalized when buyers pay them.
Air pollution from motor vehicles imposes external costs on all those exposed to it, in the form of soiling, materials damage, and disease: these externalities result from failure to place a price on air, thus making it a free good, common to all. Such externalities lead to nonoptimal resource allocation, because the private net product and the social net product of market activity are not often identical. If all externalities were internalized, transactions would occur until bargaining could no longer improve the situation, thus giving an optimal allocation of resources at a given time.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with describing
(A) objectives and legal method for directing technological development
(B) technical approaches to the problem of controlling market activity
(C) economic procedures for facilitating transactions between buyers and sellers
(D) reasons for slowing the technological development in light of environmentalist objections（A）
(E) technological innovations making it possible to achieve optimum allocation of resources
2. The author cites air pollution from motor vehicles in lines 54-56 in order to
(A) revise cost estimates calculated by including the costs of resources
(B) evaluate legal methods used to prevent technological developments
(C) give examples of costs not included in buyer-seller bargains
(D) refute hypotheses not made on the basis of monetary exchange values（C）
(E) commend technological research undertaken for the common welfare
3. According to the passage, transactions between private buyers and sellers have effects on society that generally
(A) are harmful when all factors are considered
(B) give rise to ever-increasing resource costs
(C) reflect an optimal allocation of natural resources
(D) encompass more than the effects on the buyers and sellers alone（D）
(E) are guided by legal controls on the development of technology
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the author does NOT favor which of the following?
(A) Protecting the environment for future use
(B) Changing the balance of power between opposing interests in business
(C) Intervening in the activity of the free market
(D) Making prices reflect costs to everyone in society（E）
(E) Causing technological development to cease
5. A gasoline-conservation tax on the purchase of large automobiles, with the proceeds of the tax rebated to purchasers of small automobiles, is an example of
(A) a specific directive
(B) a market incentive modification
(C) an optimal resource allocation
(D) an alteration of a decision-making structure（B）
(E) an external cost
6. If there were no external costs, as they are described in the passage, which of the following would be true?
(A) All technology-control methods would be effective.
(B) Some resource allocations would be illegal.
(C) Prices would include all costs to members of society.
(D) Some decision-making structures would be altered.（C）
(E) The availability of common goods would increase.
7. The author assumes that, in determining what would be an optimal allocation of resources, it would be possible to
(A) assign monetary value to all damage resulting from the use of technology
(B) combine legal methods to yield the theoretical optimum
(C) convince buyers to bear the burden of damage from technological developments
(D) predict the costs of new technological developments（A）
(E) derive an equation making costs depend on prices
8. On the basis of the passage, it can be inferred that the author would agree with which of the following statements concerning technological development?
(A) The government should own technological operations.
(B) The effect of technological development cannot be controlled.
(C) Some technological developments are beneficial.
(D) The current state of technological development results in a good allocation of resources.（C）
(E) Applications of technological developments are criminally destructive.
4.
The whole biosphere, like the individual organisms that live inside it, exists in a chemically dynamic state (dynamic state: 动态). In this homeostatic system, a great number of organic compounds are synthesized, transformed, and decomposed continuously; together, these processes constitute the major parts of the carbon cycle. For the smooth operation of this cycle, degradation is just as important as synthesis: the green plants produce great quantities of polymers, such as cellulose, and innumerable other compounds like alkaloids, terpenes, and flavonoids, that green plants cannot use as sources of energy during respiration. The release of the carbon in these compounds for recycling depends almost entirely on the action of both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria and certain types of fungi. Some bacteria and fungi possess the unique and extremely important biochemical asset of being able to catalyze the oxidation of numerous inert products, thereby initiating reaction sequences that produce carbon dioxide and so return much carbon to a form that actively enters into life cycles once again.
1. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions about the carbon cycle?
I. What are some of the compounds that are broken down in the carbon cycle?
II. Why are some compounds that are involved in the carbon cycle less reactive than others?
III. What role do bacteria and fungi play in the carbon cycle?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only（E）
(E) I and III only
2. The author implies that which of the following is the primary reason that degradation is as important as synthesis to the smooth operation of the carbon cycle?
(A) Most of the polymers and organic compounds found in the plant kingdom are chemically unstable.
(B) The synthesis of some organic material deprives life processes of an energy source.
(C) Decomposition permits the recycling of carbon that would otherwise be fixed in certain substances.
(D) Many organisms cannot use plants as a source of food, but can feed on bacteria and fungi.（C）
(E) Bacteria and fungi could not survive if some carbon compounds were not degraded.
3. The author’s contention about the importance of bacteria and fungi in the production of energy for life processes would be most clearly strengthened if which of the following were found to be true?
(A) Both aerobes and anaerobes provide sources of energy through the decomposition of organic material.
(B) Most compounds containing carbon are unavailable as energy sources except to some bacteria and fungi.
(C) Bacteria and fungi break down inert material in ways that do not involve oxidation.
(D) Many compounds remain inert, even in the presence of bacteria and fungi.（B）
(E) Bacteria and fungi assist in the synthesis of many organic compounds.
5.
Even as the number of females processed through juvenile courts climbs steadily, an implicit consensus remains among scholars in criminal justice that male adolescents define the delinquency problem in the United States. We suggest two reasons why this view persists. First, female adolescents are accused primarily of victimless crimes, such as truancy, that do not involve clear-cut damage to persons or property. If committed by adults, these actions are not even considered prosecutable; if committed by juvenile males, they have traditionally been looked on leniently by the courts. Thus, ironically, the plight of female delinquents receives little scrutiny because they are accused of committing relatively minor offenses. Second, the courts have long justified so-called preventive intervention into the lives of young females viewed as antisocial with the rationale that women are
especially vulnerable. Traditional stereotypes of women as the weaker and more dependent sex have led to earlier intervention and longer periods of misdirected supervision for female delinquents than for males.
1. Which of the following statements best expresses the irony pointed out by the authors in lines 13-16 of the passage?
(A) Female delinquents tend to commit victimless crimes more frequently than their male counterparts.
(B) The predicament of male delinquents receives more attention than that of females because males are accused of more serious crimes.
(C) Adults are frequently punished less severely than adolescents for committing more serious crimes.
(D) The juvenile justice system cannot correct its biases because it does not even recognize them.（B）
(E) Although the number of female delinquents is steadily increasing, the crimes of which they are accused are not particularly serious.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the authors believe traditional stereotypes of women to be
(A) frequently challenged
(B) persistently inexplicable
(C) potentially harmful
(D) rapidly changing（C）
(E) habitually disregarded
3. The passage suggests that scholars in criminal justice could be criticized for which of the following?
(A) Underestimating the seriousness of juvenile crime
(B) Rationalizing the distinction made between juveniles and adults in the legal system
(C) Concerning themselves too little with the prevention of juvenile delinquency
(D) Focusing on those whose crimes have involved damage to persons or property（D）
(E) Failing to point out injustices in the correctional system
6.
Scattered around the globe are more than one hundred regions of volcanic activity known as hot spots (hot spot: a place in the upper mantle of the earth at which hot magma from the lower mantle upwells to melt through the crust usually in the interior of a tectonic plate to form a volcanic feature; also: a place in the crust overlying a hot spot). Unlike most volcanoes, hot spots are rarely found along
the boundaries of the continental and oceanic plates that comprise the Earth’s crust; most hot spots lie deep in the interior of plates and are anchored deep in the layers of the Earth’s surface. Hot spots are also distinguished from other volcanoes by their lavas, which contain greater amounts of alkali metals than do those from volcanoes at plate margins.
In some cases, plates moving past hot spots have left trails of extinct volcanoes in much the same way that wind passing over a chimney carries off puffs of smoke. It appears that the Hawaiian Islands were created in such a manner by a single source of lava, welling up from a hot spot, over which the Pacific Ocean plate passed on a course roughly from the east toward the northwest, carrying off a line of volcanoes of increasing age. Two other Pacific island chains—the Austral Ridge and the Tuamotu Ridge—parallel the configuration of the Hawaiian chain; they are also aligned from the east toward the northwest, with the most recent volcanic activity near their eastern terminuses.
That the Pacific plate and the other plates are moving is now beyond dispute; the relative motion of the plates has been reconstructed in detail. However, the relative motion of the plates with respect to the Earth’s interior cannot be determined easily. Hot spots provide the measuring instruments for resolving the question of whether two continental plates are moving in opposite directions or whether one is stationary and the other is drifting away from it. The most compelling evidence that a continental plate is stationary is that, at some hot spots, lavas of several ages are superposed instead of being spread out in chronological sequence. Of course, reconstruction of plate motion from the tracks of hot-spot volcanoes assumes that hot spots are immobile, or nearly so. Several studies support such an assumption, including one that has shown that prominent hot spots throughout the world seem not to have moved during the past ten million years.
Beyond acting as frames of reference, hot spots apparently influence the geophysical processes that propel the plates across the globe. When a continental plate comes to rest over a hot spot, material welling up from deeper layers forms a broad dome that, as it grows, develops deep fissures. In some instances, the continental plate may rupture entirely along some of the fissures so that the hot spot initiates the formation of a new ocean. Thus, just as earlier theories have explained the mobility of the continental plates, so hot-spot activity may suggest a theory to explain their mutability.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) describe the way in which hot spots influence the extinction of volcanoes
(B) describe and explain the formation of the oceans and continents
(C) explain how to estimate the age of lava flows from extinct volcanoes
(D) describe hot spots and explain how they appear to influence and record the motion of plates（D）
(E) describe the formation and orientation of island chains in the Pacific Ocean
2. According to the passage, hot spots differ from most volcanoes in that hot spots
(A) can only be found near islands
(B) are active whereas all other volcanoes are extinct
(C) are situated closer to the earth’s surface
(D) can be found along the edges of the plates（E）
(E) have greater amounts of alkali metals in their lavas
3. It can be inferred from the passage that evidence for the apparent course of the Pacific plate has been provided by the
(A) contours of the continents
(B) dimensions of ocean hot spots
(C) concurrent movement of two hot spots
(D) pattern of fissures in the ocean floor（E）
(E) configurations of several mid-ocean island chains
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the spreading out of lavas of different ages at hot spots indicates that a
(A) hot spot is active
(B) continental plate has moved
(C) continental rupture is imminent
(D) hot spot had been moving very rapidly（B）
(E) volcano contains large concentrations of alkali metals
5. The passage suggests which of the following about the Hawaiian Islands, the Austral Ridge, and the Tuamotu Ridge?
(A) The three chains of islands are moving eastward.
(B) All the islands in the three chains have stopped moving.
(C) The three island chains are a result of the same plate movement.
(D) The Hawaiian Islands are receding from the other two island chains at a relatively rapid rate.（C）
(E) The Austral Ridge and the Tuamotu Ridge chains have moved closer together whereas the Hawaiian Islands have remained stationary.
6. Which of the following, if true, would best support the author’s statement that hot-spot activity may explain the mutability of continental plates?
(A) Hot spots move more rapidly than the continental and oceanic plates.
(B) Hot spots are reliable indicators of the age of continental plates.
(C) Hot spots are regions of volcanic activity found only in the interiors of the continental plates.
(D) The alignment of hot spots in the Pacific Ocean parallels the alignment of Pacific Ocean islands.（E）
(E) The coastlines of Africa and South America suggest that they may once have constituted a single continent that ruptured along a line of hot spots.
7. The author’s argument that hot spots can be used to reconstruct the movement of continental plates is weakened by the fact that
(A) hot spots are never found at the boundaries of plates
(B) only extinct volcanoes remain after a plate moves over a hot spot
(C) lava flow patterns for all hot spots have not been shown to be the same
(D) the immobility or near immobility of hot spots has not been conclusively proven（D）
(E) the changing configurations of islands make pinpointing the locations of hot spots difficult
8. The author’s style can best be described as
(A) dramatic
(B) archaic
(C) esoteric
(D) objective（D）
(E) humanistic
7.
Although scientists observe that an organism’s behavior falls into rhythmic patterns, they disagree about how these patterns are affected when the organism is transported to a new environment. One experimenter, Brown, brought oysters from Connecticut waters to Illinois waters. She noted that the oysters initially opened their shells widest when it was high tide in Connecticut, but that after fourteen days their rhythms had adapted to the tide schedule in Illinois. Although she could not posit an unequivocal causal relationship between behavior and environmental change, Brown concluded that a change in tide schedule is one of several possible exogenous influences (those outside the organism) on the oysters’ rhythms. Another experimenter, Hamner, however, discovered that hamsters from California maintain their original rhythms even at the South Pole. He concluded that endogenous influences (those inside the organism) seem to affect an organism’s rhythmic behavior.
1. All of the following could be considered examples of exogenous influences on an organism EXCEPT the influence of the
(A) level of a hormone on a field mouse’s readiness for mating
(B) temperature of a region on a bear’s hibernation
(C) salt level of a river on a fish’s migration
(D) humidity of an area on a cat’s shedding of its fur（A）
(E) proximity of an owl on a lizard’s searching for food
2. Which of the following statements best describes the conclusion drawn by Brown (lines 14-1)
(A) A change in tide schedule is the primary influence on an oyster’s rhythms.
(B) A change in tide schedule may be an important exogenous influence on an oyster’s rhythms.
(C) Exogenous influences, such as a change in tide schedule, seldom affect an oyster’s rhythms.
(D) Endogenous influences have no effect on an oyster’s rhythms.（B）
(E) Endogenous influences are the only influences on an oyster’s rhythms.
3. The passage suggests that Brown’s study was similar to Hamner’s in which of the following ways?
I. Both experimenters discovered that a new environment had a significant effect on an organism’s behavior rhythms.
II. Both experimenters observed an organism’s behavioral rhythms after the organism had been transported to a new environment.
III. Both experimenters knew an organism’s rhythmic patterns in its original environment.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only（D）
(E) I, II, and III
4. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Brown’s conclusion?
(A) The oyster gradually closed their shells after high tide in Illinois had passed.
(B) The oysters’ behavioral rhythms maintained their adaptation to the tide schedule in Illinois throughout thirty days of observation.
(C) Sixteen days after they were moved to Illinois, the oysters opened their shells widest when it was high tide in Connecticut.
(D) A scientist who brought Maryland oysters to Maine found that the oysters opened their shells widest when it was high tide in Maine.（C）
(E) In an experiment similar to Brown’s, a scientist was able to establish a clear causal relationship between environmental change and behavioral rhythms.
8.
Picture-taking is a technique both for annexing the objective world and for expressing the singular self. Photographs depict objective realities that already exist, though only the camera can disclose them. And they depict an individual photographer’s temperament, discovering itself through the camera’s cropping of reality. That is, photography has two antithetical ideals: in the first, photography is about the world and the photographer is a mere observe who counts for little; but in the second, photography
is the instrument of intrepid, questing subjectivity and the photographer is all.
These conflicting ideals arise from a fundamental uneasiness on the part of both photographers and viewers of photographs toward the aggressive component in “taking” a picture. Accordingly, the ideal of a photographer as observer is attractive because it implicitly denies that picture-taking is an aggressive act. The issue, of course, is not so clear-cut. What photographers do cannot be characterized as simply predatory or as simply, and essentially, benevolent. As a consequence, one ideal of picture-taking or the other is always being rediscovered and championed.
An important result of the coexistence of these two ideals is a recurrent ambivalence toward photography’s means. Whatever the claims that photography might make to be a form of personal expression on a par (on a par: adv.同等) with painting, its originality is inextricably linked to the powers of a machine. The steady growth of these powers has made possible the extraordinary informativeness and imaginative formal beauty of many photographs, like Harold Edgerton’s high-speed photographs of a bullet hitting its target or of the swirls and eddies of a tennis stroke. But as cameras become more sophisticated, more automated, some photographers are tempted to disarm themselves or to suggest that they are not really armed, preferring to submit themselves to the limits imposed by premodern camera technology because a cruder, less high-powered machine is thought to give more interesting or emotive results, to leave more room for creative accident. For example, it has been virtually a point of honor for many photographers, including Walker Evans and Cartier-Bresson, to refuse to use modern equipment. These photographers have come to doubt the value of the camera as an instrument of “fast seeing.” Cartier-Bresson, in fact, claims that the modern camera may see too fast.
This ambivalence toward photographic means determines trends in taste. The cult of the future (of faster and faster seeing) alternates over time (over time: 随着时间的过去) with the wish to return to a purer past—when images had a handmade quality. This nostalgia for some pristine state of the photographic enterprise is currently widespread and underlies the present-day enthusiasm for daguerreotypes and the wok of forgotten nineteenth-century provincial photographers. Photographers and viewers of photographs, it seems, need periodically to resist their own knowingness.
1. According to the passage, interest among photographers in each of photography’s two ideals can be described as
(A) rapidly changing
(B) cyclically recurring
(C) steadily growing
(D) unimportant to the viewers of photographs（B）
(E) unrelated to changes in technology
2. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) establishing new technical standards for contemporary photography
(B) analyzing the influence of photographic ideals on picture-taking
(C) tracing the development of camera technology in the twentieth century
(D) describing how photographers’ individual temperaments are reflected in their work（B）
(E) explaining how the technical limitations imposed by certain photographers on themselves affect their work
3. The passage states all of the following about photographs EXCEPT:
(A) They can display a cropped reality.
(B) The can convey information.
(C) They can depict the photographer’s temperament.
(D) They can possess great formal beauty.（E）
(E) They can change the viewer’s sensibilities.
4. The author mentions the work of Harold Edgerton in order to provide an example of
(A) how a controlled ambivalence toward photography’s means can produce outstanding pictures
(B) how the content of photographs has changed from the nineteenth century to the twentieth
(C) the popularity of high-speed photography in the twentieth century
(D) the relationship between photographic originality and technology（D）
(E) the primacy of formal beauty over emotional content
5. The passage suggests that photographers such as Walker Evans prefer old-fashioned techniques and equipment because these photographers
(A) admire instruments of fast seeing
(B) need to feel armed by technology
(C) strive for intense formal beauty in their photographs
(D) like the discipline that comes from self-imposed limitations（E）
(E) dislike the dependence of photographic effectiveness on the powers of a machine
6. According to the passage, the two antithetical ideals of photography differ primarily in the
(A) value that each places on the beauty of the finished product
(B) emphasis that each places on the emotional impact of the finished product
(C) degree of technical knowledge that each requires of the photographer
(D) extent of the power that each requires of the photographer’s equipment（E）
(E) way in which each defines the role of the photographer
7. Which of the following statements would be most likely to begin the paragraph immediately following the passage?
(A) Photographers, as a result of their heightened awareness of time, are constantly trying to capture events and actions that are fleeting.
(B) Thus the cult of the future, the worship of machines and speed, is firmly established in spite of efforts to the contrary by some photographers.
(C) The rejection of technical knowledge, however, can never be complete and photography cannot for any length of time pretend that it has no weapons.
(D) The point of honor involved in rejecting complex equipment is, however, of no significance to the viewer of a photograph.（C）
(E) Consequently the impulse to return to the past through images that suggest a handwrought quality is nothing more that a passing fad.
9.
It is well known that biological changes at the molecular level have morphogenetic consequences, consequences affecting the formation and differentiation of tissues and organs. It is superfluous to point out (point out: v.指出) that gene mutations and disturbances of the bio-synthetic processes in the embryo may result in abnormalities in the morphology (structure) of an organism. However, whereas much is known about causes and consequences at the molecular level, and in spite of an enormous accumulation of chemical and morphological data on embryos of various kinds, our understanding of how genes control morphogenesis is still far from complete. Perhaps one reason for this is that molecular biologists and morphologists speak different languages. Whereas the former speak about messenger-RNA and conformational changes of protein molecules, the latter speak of ectoderms, hypoblasts, and neural crests.
One solution to this predicament is to try to find some phenomena relevant to morphogenesis which both the molecular biologist and the morphologist can understand and discuss. As morphogenesis must be basically the result of changes in behavior of the individual cells, it seems logical to ask morphologists to describe the morphogenetic events observed in terms of changes in cellular contact, changes in the rate of proliferation of cells, or similar phenomena. Once this is done, it may be appropriate to ask questions about the molecular background for these changes. One may, for instance, ask whether variations in cell contact reflect alterations in the populations of molecules at the cell surface, or one may inquire about the molecular basis for the increased cell mobility involved in cell dispersion.
Studies of this kind have been carried out with cells released from tissues in various ways and then allowed to reveal their behavior after being spread out into a thin layer. In many cases, such cells show the ability to reaggregate, after which different cell types may sort themselves out into different layers and even take part in still more intricate morphogenetic events. But in most cases, the behavior of cells in the intact embryo is difficult to study because of the thickness and opacity of the cell masses. The sea urchin (sea urchin: 海胆) embryo, however, has the advantage that it is so transparent that each cell can be easily observed throughout development. Thus, by recording the development of a sea urchin embryo
with time-lapse photography, the research scientist might discover previously unknown features of cellular behavior. Perhaps the study of the sea urchin in this manner can provide a medium by which the molecular biologist and the morphologist can begin communicating with each other more effectively about the way in which genes control morphogenesis.
1. The author’s primary purpose is to
(A) outline a procedure and discuss possible applications
(B) evaluate an experiment in terms of its applicability to medical research
(C) propose a method for curing specific genetic disorders
(D) explain a problem and suggest a solution for it（D）
(E) reveal the shortcomings of several attitudes toward genetic research
2. The author states that research into the genetic control of morphogenesis has been impeded by
(A) an incomplete understanding of biomolecular reactions that are highly complex
(B) a lack of communication between scientists whose work could be complementary
(C) a reluctance on the part of morphologists to share data with molecular biologists
(D) a lack of research in the area of morphology（B）
(E) the unavailability of suitable research equipment
3. The major objective of the author’s proposal is to
(A) devise a technique for proving that abnormalities in morphology result from gene mutations
(B) improve the procedures for organizing chemical and morphological data
(C) increase the accuracy of measurements of cell populations and cell mobility
(D) reduce the margin of error in the study of conformational changes of protein molecules（E）
(E) provide a plan for increasing knowledge about the influence of genes on morphogenesis
4. It can be inferred from the passage that some cells that have been isolated from an organism have the ability to
(A) control morphogenesis
(B) reform to make higher organisms
(C) reorganize to form clusters of cells
(D) regulate the transmission of light through the cell wall（C）
(E) regulate the rate of tissue formation
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the study of the effects of genes on morphogenesis is best accomplished by observing
(A) intact developing embryos
(B) adult sea urchins
(C) isolated living cells
(D) groups of genetically mutated cells（A）
(E) cells from the same kink of tissue
6. According to the passage, it is difficult to study cells in most intact embryos because
(A) morphogenetic events cannot be isolated
(B) embryos die quickly
(C) embryos are difficult to obtain
(D) individual cells reaggregate too quickly（E）
(E) individual cells are difficult to see
7. Which of the following sequences best describes the author’s suggestion for future research on morphogenesis?
(A) Accumulation of data, simplification of language, explanation of morphogenesis
(B) Dispersion of cells, evaluation of cell activity, development of an explanatory hypothesis
(C) Classification of cell types, separation of cell, observation of cell activity
(D) Observation of cell development, description of cell behavior, explanation at the molecular level（D）
(E) Differentiation of cell types, description of cell structure, analysis of molecular components
8. The tone of the author’s discussion of the difference in the language used by morphologists and that used by molecular biologists is one of
(A) indifference
(B) neutrality
(C) derision
(D) approbation（B）
(E) indignation
10.
The black experience, one might automatically assume, is known to every Black author. Henry James was pondering a similar assumption when he said: “You were to suffer your fate. That was not necessarily to know it.” This disparity between an experience and knowledge of that experience is the longest bridge an artist must cross. Don L. Lee, in his picture of the Black poet, “studying his own poetry and the poetry of other Black poets,” touches on (touch on: 略微谈到) the crucial point. In order to transform his own sufferings—or joys—as a Black person into usable knowledge for his readers, the author must first order his experiences in his mind. Only then can he create feelingly and coherently the combination of fact and meaning that Black audiences require for the reexploration of their lives. A
cultural community of Black authors studying one another’s best works systematically would represent a dynamic interchange of the spirit—corrective and instructive and increasingly beautiful in its recorded expression.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers poetry to be which of the following?
(A) A means of diversion in which suffering is transformed into joy
(B) An art form that sometimes stifles creative energy
(C) A bridge between the mundane and the unreal
(D) A medium for conveying important information（D）
(E) An area where beauty must be sacrificed for accuracy
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be LEAST likely to approve of which of the following?
(A) Courses that promote cultural awareness through the study of contemporary art
(B) The development of creative writing courses that encourage mutual criticism of student work
(C) Growing interest in extemporaneous writing that records experiences as they occur
(D) A shift in interest from abstract philosophical poetry to concrete autobiographical poetry（C）
(E) Workshops and newsletters designed to promote dialogues between poets
3. The author refers to Henry James primarily in order to
(A) support his own perception of the “longest bridge” (lines 6-7)
(B) illustrate a coherent “combination of fact and meaning” (lines 14-15)
(C) provide an example of “dynamic interchange of the spirit” (line 3)
(D) establish the pervasiveness of lack of self-knowledge（A）
(E) contrast James’s ideas about poetry with those of Don L. Lee
11.
My objective is to analyze certain forms of knowledge, not in terms of repression or law, but in terms of power. But the word power is apt to lead to misunderstandings about the nature, form, and unity of power. By power, I do not mean a group of institutions and mechanisms that ensure the subservience of the citizenry. I do not mean, either, a mode of subjugation that, in contrast to violence, has the form of the rule. Finally, I do not have in mind a general system of domination exerted by one group over another, a system whose effects, through successive derivations, pervade the entire social body. The sovereignty of the state, the form of law, or the overall unity of a domination are only the terminal forms power takes.
It seems to me that power must be understood as the multiplicity of force relations that are
immanent in the social sphere; as the process that, through ceaseless struggle and confrontation, transforms, strengthens, or reverses them; as the support that these force relations find in one another, or on the contrary, the disjunctions and contradictions that isolate them from one another; and lastly, as the strategies in which they take effect, whose general design or institutional crystallization is embodied in the state apparatus, in the formulation of the law, in the various social hegemonies.
Thus, the viewpoint that permits one to understand the exercise of power, even in its more “peripheral” effects, and that also makes it possible to use its mechanisms as a structural framework for analyzing the social order, must not be sought in a unique source of sovereignty from which secondary and descendent forms of power emanate but in the moving substrate of force relations that, by virtue of their inequality, constantly engender local and unstable states of power. If power seems omnipresent, it is not because it has the privilege of consolidating everything under its invincible unity, but because it is produced from one moment to the next, at every point, or rather in every relation from one point to another. Power is everywhere, not because it embraces everything, but because it comes from everywhere. And if power at times seems to be permanent, repetitious, inert, and self-reproducing, it is simply because the overall effect that emerges from all these mobilities is a concatenation that rests on each of them and seeks in turn to arrest their movement. One needs to be nominalistc, no doubt: power is not an institution, and not a structure; neither is it a certain strength we are endowed with; it is the name that one attributes to a complex strategic situation in a particular society.
1. The author’s primary purpose in defining power is to
(A) counteract self-serving and confusing uses of the term
(B) establish a compromise among those who have defined the term in different ways
(C) increase comprehension of the term by providing concrete examples
(D) demonstrate how the meaning of the term has evolved（E）
(E) avoid possible misinterpretations resulting from the more common uses of the term
2. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the relationship between law and power?
(A) Law is the protector of power.
(B) Law is the source of power.
(C) Law sets bounds to power.
(D) Law is a product of power.（D）
(E) Law is a stabilizer of power.
3. Which of the following methods is NOT used extensively by the author in describing his own conception of power?
(A) Restatement of central ideas
(B) Provision of concrete examples
(C) Analysis and classification
(D) Comparison and contrast（B）
(E) Statement of cause and effect
4. With which of the following statement would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) Power tends to corrupt; absolute power corrupts absolutely.
(B) The highest proof of virtue is to possess boundless power without abusing it.
(C) To love knowledge is to love power.
(D) It is from the people and their deeds that power springs.（D）
(E) The health of the people as a state is the foundation on which all their power depends.
5. The author’s attitude toward the various kinds of compulsion employed by social institutions is best described as
(A) concerned and sympathetic
(B) scientific and detached
(C) suspicious and cautious
(D) reproachful and disturbed（B）
(E) meditative and wistful
6. According to the passage, states of power are transient because of the
(A) differing natures and directions of the forces that create them
(B) rigid structural framework in which they operate
(C) unique source from which they emanate
(D) pervasive nature and complexity of the mechanisms by which they operate（A）
(E) concatenation that seeks to arrest their movement
7. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes the conflict among social forces to be
(A) essentially the same from one society to another even though its outward manifestation may seem different
(B) usually the result of misunderstandings that impede social progress
(C) an inevitable feature of the social order of any state
(D) wrongly blamed for disrupting the stability of society（C）
(E) best moderated in states that possess a strong central government
12.
The hypothesis of an expanding Earth has never attracted notable support, and if it were not for
the historical example of continental drift, such indifference might be a legitimate response to an apparently improbable concept. It should be remembered, however, that drift too was once regarded as illusory, but the idea was kept alive until evidence from physicists compelled geologists to reinterpret their data.
Of course, it would be as dangerous to overreact to history by concluding that the majority must now be wrong about expansion as it would be to reenact the response that greeted the suggestion that the continents had drifted. The cases are not precisely analogous. There were serious problems with the pre-drift world view that a drift theory could help to resolve, whereas Earth expansion appears to offer no comparable advantages. If, however, physicists could show that the Earth’s gravitational force has decreased with time, expansion would have to be reconsidered and accommodated.
1. The passage indicates that one reason why the expansion hypothesis has attracted little support is that it will not
(A) overcome deficiencies in current geologic hypotheses
(B) clarify theories concerning the Earth’s gravitational forces
(C) complement the theory of continental drift
(D) accommodate relevant theories from the field of physics（A）
(E) withstand criticism from scientists outside the field of geology
2. The final acceptance of a drift theory could best be used to support the argument that
(A) physicists are reluctant to communicate with other scientists
(B) improbable hypotheses usually turn out to be valid
(C) there should be cooperation between different fields of science
(D) there is a need for governmental control of scientific research（C）
(E) scientific theories are often proved by accident
3. In developing his argument, the author warns against
(A) relying on incomplete measurements
(B) introducing irrelevant information
(C) rejecting corroborative evidence
(D) accepting uninformed opinions（E）
(E) making unwarranted comparisons
4. It can be deduced from the passage that the gravitational force at a point on the Earth’s surface is
(A) representative of the geologic age of the Earth
(B) analogous to the movement of land masses
(C) similar to optical phenomena such as mirages
(D) proportional to the size of the Earth（D）
(E) dependent on the speed of the Earth’s rotation
13.
Notable as important nineteenth-century novels by women, Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein and Emily Bronte’s Wuthering Heights treat women very differently. Shelley produced a “masculine” text in which the fates of subordinate female characters seem entirely dependent on the actions of male heroes or anti-heroes. Bronte produced a more realistic narrative, portraying a world where men battle for the favors of apparently high-spirited, independent women. Nevertheless, these two novels are alike in several crucial ways. Many readers are convinced that the compelling mysteries of each plot conceal elaborate structures of allusion and fierce, though shadowy, moral ambitions that seem to indicate metaphysical intentions, though efforts by critics to articulate these intentions have generated much controversy. Both novelists use a storytelling method that emphasizes ironic disjunctions between different perspectives on the same events as well as ironic tensions that inhere in the relationship between surface drama and concealed authorial intention, a method I call an evidentiary narrative technique.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) defend a controversial interpretation of two novels
(B) explain the source of widely recognized responses to two novels
(C) delineate broad differences between two novels
(D) compare and contrast two novels（D）
(E) criticize and evaluate two novels
2. According the passage, Frankenstein differs from Wuthering Heights in its
(A) use of multiple narrators
(B) method of disguising the author’s real purposes
(C) portrayal of men as determiners of the novel’s action
(D) creation of a realistic story（C）
(E) controversial effect on readers
3. Which of the following narrative strategies best exemplifies the “evidentiary narrative technique” mentioned in line 24?
(A) Telling a story in such a way that the author’s real intentions are discernible only through interpretations of allusions to a world outside that of the story
(B) Telling a story in such a way that the reader is aware as events unfold of the author’s underlying purposes and the ways these purposes conflict with the drama of the plot
(C) Telling a story in a way that both directs attention to the incongruities among the points of view of several characters and hints that the plot has a significance other than that suggested by its mere events
(D) Telling a story as a mystery in which the reader must deduce, from the conflicting evidence presented by several narrators, the moral and philosophical significance of character and event（C）
(E) Telling a story from the author’s point of view in a way that implies both the author’s and the reader’s ironic distance from the dramatic unfolding of events
4. According to the passage, the plots of Wuthering Heights and Frankenstein are notable for their elements of
(A) drama and secrecy
(B) heroism and tension
(C) realism and ambition
(D) mystery and irony（D）
(E) morality and metaphysics
14.
Climatic conditions are delicately adjusted to the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere. If there were a change in the atmosphere—for example, in the relative proportions of atmospheric gases—the climate would probably change also. A slight increase in water vapor, for instance, would increase the heat-retaining capacity of the atmosphere and would lead to a rise in global temperatures. In contrast, a large increase in water vapor would increase the thickness and extent of the cloud layer, reducing the amount of solar energy reaching the Earth’s surface.
The level of carbon dioxide, CO2, in the atmosphere has an important effect on climatic change. Most of the Earth’s incoming energy is short-wavelength radiation, which tends to pass through atmospheric CO2 easily. The Earth, however, reradiates much of the received energy as long-wavelength radiation, which CO2 absorbs and then remits toward the Earth. This phenomenon, known as the greenhouse effect, can result in an increase in the surface temperature of a planet. An extreme example of the effect is shown by Venus, a planet covered by heavy clouds composed mostly of CO2, whose surface temperatures have been measured at 430℃. If the CO2 content of the atmosphere is reduced, the temperature falls. According to one respectable theory, if the atmospheric CO2 concentration were halved, the Earth would become completely covered with ice. Another equally respectable theory, however, states that a halving of the CO2 concentration would lead only to a reduction in global temperatures of 3℃.
If, because of an increase in forest fires or volcanic activity, the CO2 content of the atmosphere increased, a warmer climate would be produced. Plant growth, which relies on both the warmth and the availability of CO2 would probably increase. As a consequence, plants would use more and more CO2. Eventually CO2 levels would diminish and the climate, in turn, would become cooler. With reduced temperatures many plants would die; CO2 would thereby be returned to the atmosphere and gradually the temperature would rise again. Thus, if this process occurred, there might be a long-term oscillation in the amount of CO2 present in the atmosphere, with regular temperature increases and decreases of a set magnitude.
Some climatologists argue that the burning of fossil fuels has raised the level of CO2 in the atmosphere and has caused a global temperature increase of at least 1℃. But a supposed global temperature rise of 1℃ may in reality be only several regional temperature increases, restricted to areas where there are many meteorological stations and caused simply by shifts in the pattern of atmospheric circulation. Other areas, for example the Southern Hemisphere oceanic zone, may be experiencing an equivalent temperature decrease that is unrecognized because of the shortage of meteorological recording stations.
1. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) Why are projections of the effects of changes in water vapor levels on the climate so inaccurate?
(B) What are the steps in the process that takes place as CO2 absorbs long-wavelength radiation?
(C) How might our understanding of the greenhouse effect be improved if the burning of fossil fuels were decreased?
(D) What might cause a series of regular increases and decreases in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere?（D）
(E) Why are there fewer meteorological recording stations in the Southern Hemisphere oceanic zone than elsewhere?
2. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) explaining the effects that the burning of fossil fuels might have on climate
(B) illustrating the effects of CO2 on atmospheric radiation
(C) discussing effects that changes in the CO2 level in the atmosphere might have on climate
(D) challenging hypotheses about the effects of water vapor and CO2 on climate（C）
(E) refuting hypotheses by climatologists about the causes of global temperature fluctuations
3. The passage suggests that a large decrease in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere would result in
(A) at least a slight decrease in global temperatures
(B) at the most a slight increase in short-wavelength radiation reaching the Earth
(C) a slight long-term increase in global temperatures
(D) a large long-term increase in the amount of volcanic activity（A）
(E) a slight short-term increase in atmosphere water vapor content
4. The author refers to Venus primarily in order to
(A) show the inherent weakness of the greenhouse effect theory
(B) show that the greenhouse effect works on other planets but not on Earth
(C) show the extent to which Earth’s atmosphere differs from that of Venus
(D) support the contention that as water vapor increase, the amount of CO2 increases（E）
(E) support the argument that the CO2 level in the atmosphere has a significant effect on climate
5. The passage suggests that if there were a slight global warming at the present time, it would be
(A) easy to measure the exact increase in temperature because of the abundance of temperature recording stations throughout the world
(B) difficult to measure the increase of CO2 in the atmosphere because of local variations in amounts
(C) easy to demonstrate the effects of the warming on the water vapor in the atmosphere
(D) difficult to prove that the warming was caused by the burning of fossil fuels（D）
(E) easy to prove that the warming was caused by an increase of cloud cover
6. The discussion of climate in the passage suggests which of the following conclusion?
I. Climate is not perfectly stable, and slight regional temperature variations can be considered a normal feature of the environment.
II. We are unable at present to measure global temperature changes precisely.
III. The most important cause of regional climatic fluctuations is the change in CO2 levels in the atmosphere.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only（C）
(E) I, II, and III
7. All of the following can be found in the author’s discussion of climate EXCEPT
(A) a statement about the effects of increased volcanic activity on the Earth’s temperatures
(B) an indication of the effect of an increase in water vapor in the atmosphere
(C) a contrast between two theories about the effects of a lowering of CO2 levels in the atmosphere
(D) a generalization about the efficiency of meteorological recording stations（D）
(E) a hypothesis about the relationship between atmospheric gases and changes in climate
15.
The Food and Drug Administration has recently proposed severe restrictions on the use of antibiotics to promote the health and growth of meat animals. Medications added to feeds kill many microorganisms but also encourage the appearance of bacterial strains that are resistant to anti-infective drugs. Already, for example, penicillin and the tetracyclines are not as effective therapeutically as they once were. The drug resistance is chiefly conferred by tiny circlets of genes, called plasmids, that can be exchanged between different strains and even different species of bacteria. Plasmids are also one of the two kinds of vehicles (the other being viruses) that molecular biologists depend on when performing gene transplant experiments. Even present guidelines forbid the laboratory use of plasmids bearing genes for resistance to antibiotics. Yet, while congressional debate rages over whether or not to toughen these restrictions on scientists in their laboratories, little congressional attention has been focused on an ill-advised agricultural practice that produces known deleterious effects.
1. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) discovering methods of eliminating harmful microorganisms without subsequently generating drug-resistant bacteria
(B) explaining reasons for congressional inaction on the regulation of gene transplant experiments
(C) describing a problematic agricultural practice and its serious genetic consequences
(D) verifying the therapeutic ineffectiveness of anti-infective drugs（C）
(E) evaluating recently proposed restrictions intended to promote the growth of meat animals
2. According to the passage, the exchange of plasmids between different bacteria can results in which of the following?
(A) Microorganisms resistant to drugs
(B) Therapeutically useful circlets of genes
(C) Anti-infective drugs like penicillin
(D) Viruses for use by molecular biologists（A）
(E) Vehicles for performing gene transplant experiments
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that those in favor of stiffening the restrictions on gene transplant research should logically also
(A) encourage experiments with any plasmids except those bearing genes for antibiotic resistance
(B) question the addition of anti-infective drugs to livestock feeds
(C) resist the use of penicillin and tetracyclines to kill microorganisms
(D) agree to the development of meatier livestock through the use of antibiotics（B）
(E) favor congressional debate and discussion of all science and health issues
4. The author’s attitude toward the development of bacterial strains that render antibiotic drugs ineffective can best be described as
(A) indifferent
(B) perplexed
(C) pretentious
(D) insincere（E）
(E) apprehensive
16.
During adolescence, the development of political ideology becomes apparent in the individual; ideology here is defined as the presence of roughly consistent attitudes, more or less organized in reference to a more encompassing, though perhaps tacit, set of general principles. As such, political ideology is dim or absent at the beginning of adolescence. Its acquisition by the adolescent, in even the most modest sense, requires the acquisition of relatively sophisticated cognitive skills: the ability to manage abstractness, to synthesize and generalize, to imagine the future. These are accompanied by a steady advance in the ability to understand principles.
The child’s rapid acquisition of political knowledge also promotes the growth of political ideology during adolescence. By knowledge I mean more than the dreary “facts,” such as the composition of county government that the child is exposed to in the conventional ninth-grade civics course. Nor do I mean only information on current political realities. These are facets of knowledge, but they are less critical than the adolescent’s absorption, often unwitting, of a feeling for those many unspoken assumptions about the political system that comprise the common ground of understanding—for example, what the state can appropriately demand of its citizens, and vice versa, or the proper relationship of government to subsidiary social institutions, such as the schools and churches. Thus political knowledge is the awareness of social assumptions and relationships as well as of objective facts. Much of the naiveté that characterizes the younger adolescent’s grasp of politics stems not from an ignorance of “facts” but from conventions of the system, of what is and is not customarily done, and of how and why it is or is not done.
Yet I do not want to overemphasize the significance of increased political knowledge in forming adolescent ideology. Over the years I have become progressively disenchanted about the centrality of such knowledge and have come to believe that much current work in political socialization, by relying too heavily on its apparent acquisition, has been misled about the tempo of political understanding in adolescence. Just as young children can count numbers in series without grasping the principle of ordination, young adolescents may have in their heads many random bits of political information without a secure understanding of those concepts that would give order and meaning to the
information.
Like magpies, children’s minds pick up bits and pieces of data. If you encourage them, they will drop these at your feet—Republicans and Democrats, the tripartite division of the federal system, perhaps even the capital of Massachusetts. But until the adolescent has grasped the integumental function that concepts and principles provide, the data remain fragmented, random, disordered.
1. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to
(A) clarify the kinds of understanding an adolescent must have in order to develop a political ideology
(B) dispute the theory that a political ideology can be acquired during adolescence
(C) explain why adolescents are generally uninterested in political arguments
(D) suggest various means of encouraging adolescents to develop personal political ideologies（A）
(E) explain why an adolescent’s political ideology usually appears more sophisticated than it actually is
2. According to the author, which of the following contributes to the development of political ideology during adolescence?
(A) Conscious recognition by the adolescent of his or her own naiveté
(B) Thorough comprehension of the concept of ordination
(C) Evaluation by the adolescent of the general principles encompassing his or her specific political ideas
(D) Intuitive understanding of relationships among various components of society（D）
(E) Rejection of abstract reasoning in favor of involvement with pragmatic situations
3. The author uses the term “common ground of understanding” (line 27) to refer to
(A) familiar legislation regarding political activity
(B) the experiences that all adolescents share
(C) a society’s general sense of its own political activity
(D) a society’s willingness to resolve political tensions（C）
(E) the assumption that the state controls social institutions
4. The passage suggests that, during early adolescence, a child would find which of the following most difficult to understand?
(A) A book chronicling the ways in which the presidential inauguration ceremony has changed over the years
(B) An essay in which an incident in British history is used to explain the system of monarchic succession
(C) A summary of the respective responsibilities of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches of government
(D) A debate in which the participants argue, respectively, that the federal government should or should not support private schools（D）
(E) An article detailing the specific religious groups that founded American colonies and the guiding principles of each one
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about schools?
(A) They should present political information according to carefully planned, schematic arrangements.
(B) They themselves constitute part of a general sociopolitical system that adolescents are learning to understand.
(C) If they were to introduce political subject matter in the primary grades, students would understand current political realities at an earlier age.
(D) They are ineffectual to the degree that they disregard adolescents’ political naiveté.（B）
(E) Because they are subsidiary to government their contribution to the political understanding of adolescent must be limited.
6. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s evaluation of the accumulation of political knowledge by adolescents?
(A) It is unquestionably necessary, but its significance can easily be overestimated.
(B) It is important, but not as important as is the ability to appear knowledgeable.
(C) It delays the necessity of considering underlying principles.
(D) It is primarily relevant to an understanding of limited, local concerns, such as county politics.（A）
(E) It is primarily dependent on information gleaned from high school courses such as civics.
7. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the author’s discussion of the role of political knowledge in the formation of political ideology during adolescence?
(A) He acknowledges its importance, but then modifies his initial assertion of that importance.
(B) He consistently resists the idea that it is important, using a series of examples to support his stand.
(C) He wavers in evaluating it and finally uses analogies to explain why he is indecisive.
(D) He begins by questioning conventional ideas about its importance, but finally concedes that they are correct.（A）
(E) He carefully refrains from making an initial judgment about it, but later confirms its critical role.
17.
The making of classifications by literary historians can be a somewhat risky enterprise. When Black poets are discussed separately as a group, for instance, the extent to which their work reflects the development of poetry in general should not be forgotten, or a distortion of literary history may result. This caution is particularly relevant in an assessment of the differences between Black poets at the turn of the century (300-309) and those of the generation of the 34’s. These differences include the bolder and more forthright speech of the later generation and its technical inventiveness. It should be remembered, though, that comparable differences also existed for similar generations of White poets.
When poets of the 310’s and 34’s are considered together, however, the distinctions that literary historians might make between “conservative” and “experimental” would be of little significance in a discussion of Black poets, although these remain helpful classifications for White poets of these decades. Certainly differences can be noted between “conservative” Black poets such as Counter Cullen and Claude McKay and “experimental” ones such as Jean Toomer and Langston Hughes. But Black poets were not battling over old or new styles; rather, one accomplished Black poet was ready to welcome another, whatever his or her style, for what mattered was racial pride.
However, in the 34’s Black poets did debate whether they should deal with specifically racial subjects. They asked whether they should only write about Black experience for a Black audience or whether such demands were restrictive. It may be said, though, that virtually all these poets wrote their best poems when they spoke out of racial feeling, race being, as James Weldon Johnson rightly put it, “perforce the thing the Negro poet knows best.”
At the turn of the century, by contrast, most Black poets generally wrote in the conventional manner of the age and expressed noble, if vague, emotions in their poetry. These poets were not unusually gifted, though Roscoe Jamison and G. M. McClellen may be mentioned as exceptions. They chose not to write in dialect, which, as Sterling Brown has suggested, “meant a rejection of stereotypes of Negro life,” and they refused to write only about racial subjects. This refusal had both a positive and a negative consequence. As Brown observes, “Valuably insisting that Negro poets should not be confined to issues of race, these poets committed [an] error… they refused to look into their hearts and write.” These are important insights, but one must stress that this refusal to look within was also typical of most White poets of the United States at the time. They, too, often turned from their own experience and consequently produced not very memorable poems about vague topics, such as the peace of nature.
1. According to the passage, most turn-of-the-century Black poets generally did which of the following?
(A) Wrote in ways that did not challenge accepted literary practice.
(B) Described scenes from their own lives.
(C) Aroused patriotic feelings by expressing devotion to the land.
(D) Expressed complex feelings in the words of ordinary people.（A）
(E) Interpreted the frustrations of Blacks to an audience of Whites.
2. According to the passage, an issue facing Black poets in the 34’s was whether they should
(A) seek a consensus on new techniques of poetry
(B) write exclusively about and for Blacks
(C) withdraw their support from a repressive society
(D) turn away from social questions to recollect the tranquility of nature（B）
(E) identify themselves with an international movement of Black writers
3. It can be inferred from the passage that classifying a poet as either conservative or experimental would be of “little significance” (line 21) when discussing Black poets of the 310’s and the 34’s because
(A) these poets wrote in very similar styles
(B) these poets all wrote about nature in the same way
(C) these poets were fundamentally united by a sense of racial achievement despite differences in poetic style
(D) such a method of classification would fail to take account of the influence of general poetic practice（C）
(E) such a method of classification would be relevant only in a discussion of poets separated in time by more than three decades
4. The author quotes Sterling Brown in lines 53-56 in order to
(A) present an interpretation of some black poets that contradicts the author’s own assertion about their acceptance of various poetic styles
(B) introduce a distinction between Black poets who used dialect and White poets who did not
(C) disprove James Weldon Johnson’s claim that race is what “the Negro poet knows best”
(D) suggest what were the effects of some Black poets’ decision not to write only about racial subjects（D）
(E) prove that Black poets at the turn of the century wrote less conventionally than did their White counterparts
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author finds the work of the majority of the Black poets at the turn of the century to be
(A) unexciting
(B) calming
(C) confusing
(D) delightful（A）
(E) inspiring
6. The author would be most likely to agree that poets tend to produce better poems when they
(A) express a love of nature
(B) declaim noble emotions
(C) avoid technical questions about style
(D) emulate the best work of their predecessors（E）
(E) write from personal experience
7. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward classification as a technique in literary history?
(A) Enthusiastic
(B) Indifferent
(C) Wary
(D) Derisive（C）
(E) Defensive
18.
The primary method previously used by paleontologists to estimate climatic changes that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles was the determination of 2O/16O ratios in calcareous fossils. However, because this ratio is influenced by a number of factors, the absolute magnitude of the temperature difference between Pleistocene glacial and interglacial cycles could not be unequivocally ascertained. For example, both temperature fluctuations and isotopic changes in seawater affect the 2O/16O ratio. And, since both factors influence the ratio in the same direction, the contribution of each to the 2O/16O cannot be determined.
Fortunately, recent studies indicate that the racemization reaction of amino acids can be used to determine more accurately temperatures that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles. Only L-amino acids are usually found in the proteins of living organisms, but over long periods of geological time these acids undergo racemization, producing D-amino acids, which are not found in proteins. This reaction depends on both time and temperature; thus, if one variable is known, the reaction can be used to calculate the other.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that determination of the temperatures mentioned in line 1 through 2O/16O ratios and determination through racemization reactions both require which of the following?
(A) Calcium deposits known to be from Pleistocene seas
(B) Proteins containing both L-amino acids and D-amino acids
(C) Glacial debris from both before and after the Pleistocene period
(D) Fossil material from organisms living during the Pleistocene period（D）
(E) Proteins containing both amino acids and 2O
2. The passage suggests that the 2O/16O ratio could be used more successfully as a means of measurement if scientists were able to
(A) determine the 2O/16O ratio in living animals as well as in fossil remains
(B) locate a greater number of calcareous fossils from the Pleistocene glacial and interglacial cycles
(C) locate the factors other than temperature fluctuations and isotopic changes in seawater that affect the 2O/16O ratio
(D) arrive at more exact determinations of which amino acids are found in the proteins of living organisms（E）
(E) isolate the relative effects of temperature fluctuations and isotopic changes in seawater on 2O/16O ratios
3. The information in the passage can be used to answer which of the following questions?
I. Do temperature variations and isotopic changes in seawater cause the 2O/16O ratio to shift in the same direction?
II. What are the methods used to determine the 2O/16O ratio?
III. Is the study of racemization reactions useful in estimating climatic changes that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles if only one of the two important variables is known?
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only（C）
(E) I, II, and III
4. According to the passage, before the recent experiments described in the passage were completed, scientists could
(A) determine temperatures only for Pleistocene seas
(B) determine temperatures that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles only by examining fossil remains
(C) measure changes in temperatures that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles with only questionable accuracy
(D) only partially identify factors tending to lower Pleistocene temperatures（C）
(E) accurately determine temperatures only for land masses affected by glaciation
19.
Chimps and children, gulls and Greeks—the ethologists go their merry way, comparing bits of human cultural behavior with bits of genetically programmed animal behavior. True, humans are animals; they share certain anatomical features with other animals, and some items of human behavior may seem analogous to the behavior of other animals. But such analogies can seriously mislead if we fail to look at the context of a particular item of behavior. Thus one ethologist compares the presentation of a twig by a cormorant with gift-giving in humans. Yet the cormorant’s twig-presentation simply inhibits attack and is comparable to other appeasement rituals found in many species. Human gift-giving differs in form and purpose not only from culture to culture, but within the same culture in various social contexts. Everything significant about it derives from its social context. Thus, ethologists can accomplish little—beyond reminding us that we are animals—until they study humans as cultural beings.
1. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) demonstrating the usefulness of ethology in discovering the behavioral limits within which humans operate
(B) objecting to the degradation of humanity implicit in the ethologists equation of humans and animals
(C) pointing out the dangers inherent in comparing highly dissimilar species, such as humans and cormorants, rather than similar ones, such as humans and apes
(D) refuting the idea that the appeasement rituals in human cultural behavior can be profitably subjected to ethological analysis（E）
(E) arguing that the ethologists’ assumption that human behavior can be straightforwardly compared with animal behavior is invalid
2. The author believes that gift-giving in humans
(A) is instinctive behavior
(B) is analogous to appeasement rituals in other animals
(C) is not an appropriate subject of study for ethologists
(D) must be considered within its social context to be properly understood（D）
(E) may be a cultural remnant of behavior originally designed to inhibit attack
3. The author’s attitude toward contemporary ethologists can best be described as
(A) puzzled
(B) conciliatory
(C) defensive
(D) amused（E）
(E) disparaging
4. Which of the following statements from a report on a cross-cultural study of gift-giving would, if true, most strongly support the author’s assertions concerning human gift-giving?
(A) In every culture studied, it was found that some forms of gift-giving are acts of aggression that place the receiver under obligation to the giver.
(B) Most governmental taxation systems differentiate between gifts of property given to children during a parent’s lifetime, and a child’s inheritance of the same property from a parent dying without a will.
(C) Some gift-giving customs have analogous forms in nearly every culture, as in the almost universal custom of welcoming strangers with gifts of food.
(D) In North America, generally speaking, money is an acceptable holiday gift to one’s letter carrier or garbage collector, but is often considered an insult if given to one’s employer, friends, or relatives.（D）
(E) Some gifts, being conciliatory in nature, indicate by their costliness the degree of hostility they must appease in the recipient.
20.
Few areas of neurobehavioral research seemed more promising in the early sixties than that investigating the relationship between protein synthesis and learning. The conceptual framework for this research was derived directly from molecular biology, which had shown that genetic information is stored in nucleic acids and expressed in proteins. Why not acquired information as well?
The first step toward establishing a connection between protein synthesis and learning seemed to be block memory (cause amnesia) by interrupting the production of protein. We were fortunate in finding a nonlethal dosage of puromycin that could, it first appeared, thoroughly inhibit brain protein synthesis as well as reliably produce amnesia.
Before the actual connection between protein synthesis and learning could be established, however, we began to have doubts about whether inhibition of protein synthesis was in fact the method by which puromycin produced amnesia. First, other drugs, glutarimides—themselves potent protein-synthesis inhibitors—either failed to cause amnesia in some situations where it could easily be induced by puromycin or produced an amnesia with a different time course from that of puromycin. Second, puromycin was found to inhibit protein synthesis by breaking certain amino-acid chains, and the resulting fragments were suspected of being the actual cause of amnesia in some cases. Third,
puromycin was reported to cause abnormalities in the brain, including seizures. Thus, not only were decreased protein synthesis and amnesia dissociated, but alternative mechanisms for the amnestic action of puromycin were readily suggested.
So, puromycin turned out to be a disappointment. It came to be regarded as a poor agent for amnesia studies, although, of course, it was poor only in the context of our original paradigm of protein-synthesis inhibition. In our frustration, our initial response was simply to change drugs rather than our conceptual orientation. After many such disappointments, however, it now appears unlikely that we will make a firm connection between protein synthesis and learning merely by pursuing the approaches of the past. Our experience with drugs has shown that all the amnestic agents often interfere with memory in ways that seem unrelated to their inhibition of protein synthesis. More importantly, the notion that the interruption or intensification of protein production in the brain can be related in cause-and-effect fashion to learning now seems simplistic and unproductive. Remove the battery from a car and the car will not go. Drive the car a long distance at high speed and the battery will become more highly charged. Neither of these facts proves that the battery powers the car; only a knowledge of the overall automotive system will reveal its mechanism of the locomotion and the role of the battery within that system.
1. This passage was most likely excerpted from
(A) a diary kept by a practicing neurobehavioral researcher
(B) a newspaper article on recent advances in the biochemistry of learning
(C) a technical article on experimental techniques in the field of molecular biology
(D) an article summarizing a series of scientific investigations in neurobehavioral research（D）
(E) a book review in a leading journal devoted to genetic research
2. The primary purpose of the passage is to show that extensive experimentation has
(A) demonstrated the importance of amino-acid fragmentation in the induction of amnesia
(B) cast doubt on the value of puromycin in the neurobehavioral investigation of learning
(C) revealed the importance of amnesia in the neurobehavioral study of learning
(D) not yet demonstrated the applicability of molecular biology to neurobehavioral research（E）
(E) not supported the hypothesis that learning is directly dependent on protein synthesis
3. According to the passage, neurobehaviorists initially based their belief that protein synthesis was related to learning on which of the following?
(A) Traditional theories about learning
(B) New techniques in protein synthesis
(C) Previous discoveries in molecular biology
(D) Specific research into learning and amnesia（C）
(E) Historic experiments on the effects of puromycin
4. The passage mentions all of the following as effects of puromycin EXCEPT:
(A) brain seizures
(B) memory loss
(C) inhibition of protein synthesis
(D) destruction of genetic information（D）
(E) fragmentation of amino-acid chains
5. It can be inferred from the passage that, after puromycin was perceived to be a disappointment, researchers did which of the following?
(A) They ceased to experiment with puromycin and shifted to other promising protein-synthesis inhibitors.
(B) They ceased to experiment with puromycin, and reexamined through experiments the relationship between genetic information and acquired information.
(C) The continued to experiment with puromycin, but applied their results to other facets of memory research.
(D) They continued to experiment with puromycin, but also tried other protein-synthesis inhibitors.（A）
(E) They continued to experiment with puromycin until a new neuroanatomical framework was developed.
6. In the example of the car (lines 58-65), the battery is meant to represent which of the following elements in the neurobehavioral research program?
(A) Puromycin
(B) Amnesia
(C) Glutarimides
(D) Protein synthesis（D）
(E) Acquired information
7. Which of the following statements could be most likely to come after the last sentence of the passage?
(A) The failures of the past, however, must not impede further research into the amnestic action of protein-synthesis inhibitors.
(B) It is a legacy of this research, therefore, that molecular biology’s genetic models have led to disagreements among neurobehaviorists.
(C) The ambivalent status of current research, however, should not deter neurobehaviorists from exploring the deeper connections between protein production and learning.
(D) It is important in the future, therefore, for behavioral biochemists to emphasize more strongly
the place of their specific findings within the overall protein-synthesis model of learning.（E）
(E) It is important in the future, therefore, for behavioral biochemists to focus on the several components of the total learning system.
21.
Although pathogenic organisms constantly alight on the skin, they find it a very unfavorable environment and, in the absence of injury, have great difficulty colonizing it. This “self-sterilizing” capacity of the skin results from the tendency of all well-developed ecosystems toward homeostasis, or the maintenance of the status quo.
Species that typically live in soil, water, and elsewhere rarely multiply on the skin. Undamaged skin is also unfavorable to most human pathogens. The skin is too acid and too arid for some species. The constant shedding of the surface skin layers further hinders the establishment of invaders. The most interesting defense mechanism, however, results from the metabolic activities of the resident flora. Unsaturated fatty acids, an important component of the lipids in sebum collected from the skin surface, inhibit the growth of several bacterial and fungal cutaneous pathogens. These acids are a metabolic product of certain gram-positive members of the cutaneous community, which break down the more complex lipids in freshly secreted sebum.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) offer an analysis of metabolic processes
(B) detail the ways in which bacteria and fungi can be inhibited
(C) describe mechanisms by which the skin protects itself against pathogens
(D) analyze the methods whereby biological systems maintain the status quo（C）
(E) provide a specific example of the skin’s basic defenses against pathogens
2. The “resident flora” mentioned in line 16 refer to
(A) “Unsaturated fatty acids” (line 17)
(B) “sebum collected from the skin surface” (lines 18-19)
(C) “bacterial and fungal cutaneous pathogens” (lines 19-20)
(D) “certain gram-positive members of the cutaneous community” (lines 21-22)（D）
(E) “more complex lipids” (lines 23)
3. Among the natural defenses of the skin against pathogenic organisms are all of the following EXCEPT the
(A) dryness of the skin
(B) acidity of the skin
(C) tendency of the pathogens toward homeostasis
(D) shedding of surface layers of the skin（C）
(E) metabolic breakdown of lipids
4. The author presents her material in which of the following ways?
(A) Stating a problem and then supplying a solution
(B) Presenting a phenomenon and then analyzing reason for it
(C) Providing information and then drawing a conclusion from it
(D) Making a general statement and then arguing by analogy（B）
(E) Making an inference and then developing it by illustration
22.
“Masterpieces are dumb,” wrote Flaubert, “They have a tranquil aspect like the very products of nature, like large animals and mountains.” He might have been thinking of War and Peace, that vast, silent work, unfathomable and simple, provoking endless questions through the majesty of its being. Tolstoi’s simplicity is “overpowering,” says the critic Bayley, “disconcerting,” because it comes from “his casual assumption that the world is as he sees it.” Like other nineteenth-century Russian writers he is “impressive” because he “means what he says,” but he stands apart from all others and from most Western writers in his identity with life, which is so complete as to make us forget he is an artist. He is the center of his work, but his egocentricity is of a special kind. Goethe, for example, says Bayley, “cared for nothing but himself. Tolstoi was nothing but himself.”
For all his varied modes of writing and the multiplicity of characters in his fiction, Tolstoi and his work are of a piece (of a piece: adj.一致的). The famous “conversion” of his middle years, movingly recounted in his Confession, was a culmination of his early spiritual life, not a departure from it. The apparently fundamental changes that led from epic narrative to dogmatic parable, from a joyous, buoyant attitude toward life to pessimism and cynicism, from War and Peace to The Kreutzer Sonata, came from the same restless, impressionable depths of an independent spirit yearning to get at the truth of its experience. “Truth is my hero,” wrote Tolstoi in his youth, reporting the fighting in Sebastopol. Truth remained his hero—his own, not others’, truth. Others were awed by Napoleon, believed that a single man could change the destinies of nations, adhered to meaningless rituals, formed their tastes on established canons of art. Tolstoi reversed all preconceptions; and in every reversal he overthrew the “system,” the “machine,” the externally ordained belief, the conventional behavior in favor of unsystematic, impulsive life, of inward motivation and the solutions of independent thought.
In his work the artificial and the genuine are always exhibited in dramatic opposition: the supposedly great Napoleon and the truly great, unregarded little Captain Tushin, or Nicholas Rostov’s actual experience in battle and his later account of it. The simple is always pitted against the elaborate, knowledge gained from observation against assertions of borrowed faiths. Tolstoi’s magical simplicity is a product of these tensions; his work is a record of the questions he put to himself and of the answers he
found in his search. The greatest characters of his fiction exemplify this search, and their happiness depends on the measure of their answers. Tolstoi wanted happiness, but only hard-won happiness, that emotional fulfillment and intellectual clarity which could come only as the prize of all-consuming effort. He scorned lesser satisfactions.
1. Which of the following best characterizes the author’s attitude toward Tolstoi?
(A) She deprecates the cynicism of his later works.
(B) She finds his theatricality artificial.
(C) She admires his wholehearted sincerity.
(D) She thinks his inconsistency disturbing.（C）
(E) She respects his devotion to orthodoxy.
2. Which of the following best paraphrases Flaubert’s statement quoted in lines 1-4?
(A) Masterpiece seem ordinary and unremarkable from the perspective of a later age.
(B) Great works of art do not explain themselves to us any more than natural objects do.
(C) Important works of art take their place in the pageant of history because of their uniqueness.
(D) The most important aspects of good art are the orderliness and tranquility it reflects.（B）
(E) Masterpieces which are of enduring value represent the forces of nature.
3. The author quotes from Bayley (line 8-20) to show that
(A) although Tolstoi observes and interprets life, he maintains no self-conscious distance from his experience
(B) the realism of Tolstoi’s work gives the illusion that his novels are reports of actual events
(C) unfortunately, Tolstoi is unaware of his own limitation, though he is sincere in his attempt to describe experience
(D) although Tolstoi works casually and makes unwarranted assumption, his work has an inexplicable appearance of truth（A）
(E) Tolstoi’s personal perspective makes his work almost unintelligible to the majority of his readers
4. The author states that Tolstoi’s conversion represented
(A) a radical renunciation of the world
(B) the rejection of avant-garde ideas
(C) the natural outcome of his earlier beliefs
(D) the acceptance of religion he had earlier rejected（C）
(E) a fundamental change in his writing style
5. According to the passage, Tolstoi’s response to the accepted intellectual and artistic values of his times was to
(A) select the most valid from among them
(B) combine opposing viewpoints into a new doctrine
(C) reject the claims of religion in order to serve his art
(D) subvert them in order to defend a new political viewpoint（E）
(E) upset them in order to be faithful to his experience
6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of War and Peace?
(A) It belongs to an early period of Tolstoi’s work.
(B) It incorporates a polemic against the disorderliness of Russian life.
(C) It has a simple structural outline.
(D) It is a work that reflects an ironic view of life.（A）
(E) It conforms to the standard of aesthetic refinement favored by Tolstoi’s contemporaries.
7. According to the passage, the explanation of Tolstoi’s “magical simplicity” (line 55) lies partly in his
(A) remarkable power of observation and his facility in exact description
(B) persistent disregard for conventional restraints together with his great energy
(C) unusual ability to reduce the description of complex situations to a few words
(D) abiding hatred of religious doctrine and preference for new scientism（E）
(E) continuing attempt to represent the natural in opposition to the pretentious
23.
The stratospheric ozone layer is not a completely uniform stratum, nor does it occur at the same altitude around the globe. It lies closest to the Earth over the poles and rises to maximum altitude over the equator. In the stratosphere, ozone is continuously being made and destroyed by natural processes. During the day the Sun breaks down some of the oxygen molecules to single oxygen atoms, and these reacting with the oxygen molecules that have not been dissociated, form ozone. However, the sunlight also breaks down ozone by converting some of it back to normal oxygen. In addition naturally occurring nitrogen oxides enter into the cycle and speed the breakdown reactions. The amount of ozone present at any one time is the balance between the processes that create it and those that destroy it.
Since the splitting of the oxygen molecules depends directly upon the intensity of solar radiation, the greatest rate of ozone production occurs over the tropics. However ozone is also destroyed most rapidly there, and wind circulation patterns carry the ozone-enriched upper layers of the atmosphere away from the equator. It turns out that the largest total ozone amounts are found at high latitudes. On a typical day the amount of ozone over Minnesota, for example, is 30 percent greater than the amount over Texas, 900 miles farther south. The density and altitude of the ozone layer also change with the
seasons, the weather, and the amount of solar activity. Nevertheless, at any one place above the Earth’s surface, the long-term averages maintained by natural processes are believed to be reasonably constant.
The amount of ozone near the Earth is only a small percent of the amount in the stratosphere, and exchange of molecules between the ozone layer and the air at ground level is thought to be relatively small. Furthermore, the ozone molecule is so unstable that only a tiny fraction of ground-level ozone could survive the long trip to the stratosphere, so the ozone layer will not be replenished to any significant degree by the increasing concentrations of ozone that have been detected in recent years near the earth’s surface. The long-term averages of ozone both near ground level and in the stratosphere are regulated by continuous processes that are constantly destroying and creating it in each of these places. This is why scientists are so concerned about human beings injection into the stratosphere of chemicals like nitrogen oxides, which are catalysts that facilitate the breakdown of ozone. If the ozone layer is depleted significantly, more ultraviolet radiation would penetrate to the Earth’s surface and damage many living organisms.
1. The passage suggests that factors contributing to the variation in the amount of ozone above different areas of the Earth’s surface include which of the following?
I. Some of the ozone found at higher latitudes was produced elsewhere.
II. There is usually a smaller amount of naturally occurring nitrogen oxide over high latitudes.
III. The rate of ozone production over the poles is less than that over the tropics.
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only（D）
(E) I, II, and III
2. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
(A) Naturally occurring nitrogen oxides, as well as those introduced by humans, threaten to deplete the layer of ozone in the stratosphere.
(B) A delicate but reasonably constant balance exists between the natural processes that produce and those that destroy ozone in the stratosphere.
(C) There is little hope that the increased concentrations of ground-level ozone observed in recent years can offset any future depletion of stratospheric ozone.
(D) Meteorologically induced changes in the concentration of ozone in the stratosphere tend to cancel themselves out over a period of time.（B）
(E) Solar radiation not only produces and destroys zone but also poses a hazard to human life.
3. The processes that determine the amount of ozone in a given portion of the stratosphere most resemble which of the following?
(A) Automobile emissions and seasonal fog that create a layer of smog over a city
(B) Planting and harvesting activities that produce a crop whose size is always about the same
(C) Withdrawals and deposits made in a bank account whose average balance remains about the same
(D) Assets and liabilities that determine the net worth of a corporation（C）
(E) High grades and low grades made by a student whose average remains about the same from term to term
4. According to the passage, which of the following has the LEAST effect on the amount of ozone at a given location in the upper atmosphere?
(A) Latitude
(B) Weather
(C) Season
(D) Ground-level ozone（D）
(E) Solar activity
5. The author provides information that answers which of the following questions?
I. What is the average thickness of the stratospheric ozone layer?
II. Why does increased exposure to ultraviolet radiation damage many living organisms?
III. What is the role of oxygen in the production of stratospheric zone?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II（C）
(E) II and III
6. In explaining what determines the amount of ozone in the stratosphere, the author describes natural processes that form
(A) an interactive relationship
(B) a reductive system
(C) a linear progression
(D) a set of randomly occurring phenomena（A）
(E) a set of sporadically recurring events
24.
Feelings of hopelessness among medieval workers trapped in the poverty cycle gradually lessened
as it became possible for women’s labor to supplement a family’s money income by more than pennies. By 1300, women spinners could be found working on their own for wealthy sponsors, even after the introduction in Italy and France of prohibition against advancing money for supplies to women spinners. Historians have usually interpreted this prohibition simply as evidence of women’s economic subjection, since it obliged them to turn to usurers; however, it was also almost certainly a response to a trend toward differential reward for women’s higher skill. Yarn can be spun irregularly and lumpily, but perfectly smooth yarn is worth more. Working for merchant entrepreneurs on time rates, women had been paid hardly more than children; working as entrepreneurs themselves and producing good work by the piece, they could break into (to make entry or entrance into “broke into the house” “break into show business”) the rational system of differential rewards.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) propose and defend a theory about the consequences of a certain historical event
(B) present historical facts and offer a broader interpretation of those facts than has been offered in the past
(C) describe the socioeconomic effects of a widely held attitude during a particular historical period
(D) demonstrate the superiority of using an economic approach to historical analysis（B）
(E) call attention to the influence of the textile industry on society during a particular historical period
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author views the system of paying all workers equally on time rates as
(A) unfair and not rational
(B) undesirable but unavoidable
(C) efficient and profitable
(D) advantageous to most women workers（A）
(E) evidence of a trend toward a more modern wage system
3. The passage implies which of the following about women spinners in medieval Europe?
(A) Most of them worked independently for wealthy sponsors.
(B) They were not typical of medieval women entrepreneurs.
(C) Some of them were paid for their work after it was done, according to its value.
(D) They would have been able to contribute substantial amounts to their families incomes were it not for the prohibition against advancing money to them.（C）
(E) They were inevitably disadvantaged in the marketplace because they were obliged to obtain money for their supplies from usurers.
4. The passage implies that feelings of hopelessness among medieval workers
(A) resulted primarily from the lack of a rational system of differential rewards
(B) disappeared completely once medieval textile workers were able to break the cycle of poverty
(C) were more prevalent among female workers than among male workers
(D) came into being in part because of women’s limited earning capacity（D）
(E) were particularly common among textile workers in Italy and France
5. The author suggests that historians have done which of the following?
(A) Failed to give adequate consideration to the economic contribution of women during the medieval period.
(B) Overestimated the degree of hopelessness experienced by medieval workers trapped in the poverty cycle.
(C) Ignored the fact that by 1300 many women spinners were working independently rather than for merchant entrepreneurs.
(D) Regard the economic status of women in Italy and France as representative of women’s status throughout medieval Europe.（E）
(E) Overlooked part of the significance of a prohibition governing one aspect of yarn production in medieval Europe.
25.
By the time the American colonists took up arms against Great Britain in order to secure their independence, the institution of Black slavery was deeply entrenched. But the contradiction inherent in this situation was, for many, a source of constant embarrassment. “It always appeared a most iniquitous scheme to me,” Abigail Adams wrote her husband in 1774, “to fight ourselves for what we are daily robbing and plundering from those who have as good a right to freedom as we have.”
Many Americans besides Abigail Adams were struck by the inconsistency of their stand during the War of Independence, and they were not averse to making moves to emancipate the slaves. Quakers and other religious groups organized antislavery societies, while numerous individuals manumitted their slaves. In fact, within several years of the end of the War of Independence, most of the Eastern states had made provisions for the gradual emancipation of slaves.
17. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
(A) The War of Independence produced among many Black Americans a heightened consciousness of the inequities in American society.
(B) The War of Independence strengthened the bonds of slavery of many Black Americans while intensifying their desire to be free.
(C) The War of Independence exposed to many Americans the contradiction of slavery in a country seeking its freedom and resulted in efforts to resolve that contradiction.
(D) The War of Independence provoked strong criticisms by many Americans of the institution of slavery, but produced little substantive action against it.（C）
(E) The War of Independence renewed the efforts of many American groups toward achieving Black emancipation.
18. The passage contains information that would support which of the following statements about the colonies before the War of Independence?
(A) They contained organized antislavery societies.
(B) They allowed individuals to own slaves.
(C) They prohibited religious groups from political action.
(D) They were inconsistent in their legal definitions of slave status.（B）
(E) They encouraged abolitionist societies to expand their influence.
19. According to the passage, the War of Independence was embarrassing to some Americans for which of the following reasons?
I. It involved a struggle for many of the same liberties that Americans were denying to others.
II. It involved a struggle for independence from the very nation that had founded the colonies.
III. It involved a struggle based on inconsistencies in the participants’ conceptions of freedom.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only（A）
(E) I, II, and III
20. Which of the following statements regarding American society in the years immediately following the War of Independence is best supported by the passage?
(A) The unexpected successes of the antislavery societies led to their gradual demise in the Eastern states.
(B) Some of the newly independent American states had begun to make progress toward abolishing slavery.
(C) Americans like Abigail Adams became disillusioned with the slow progress of emancipation and gradually abandoned the cause.
(D) Emancipated slaves gradually were accepted in the Eastern states as equal members of American society.（B）
(E) The abolition of slavery in many Eastern states was the result of close cooperation between religious groups and free Blacks.